Bill Text: IN HB1234 | 2010 | Regular Session | Enrolled
Bill Title: Criminal procedures and controlled substances.
Spectrum: Partisan Bill (Democrat 4-0)
Status: (Passed) 2010-03-25 - Section 15 effective 03/18/2010 [HB1234 Detail]
Download: Indiana-2010-HB1234-Enrolled.html
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AN AC
T to amend the Indiana Code concerning criminal
procedures and controlled
substances
.
(1) Those declared confidential by state statute.
(2) Those declared confidential by rule adopted by a public agency under specific authority to classify public records as confidential granted to the public agency by statute.
(3) Those required to be kept confidential by federal law.
(4) Records containing trade secrets.
(5) Confidential financial information obtained, upon request, from a person. However, this does not include information that is filed with or received by a public agency pursuant to state statute.
(6) Information concerning research, including actual research documents, conducted under the auspices of a state educational institution, including information:
(A) concerning any negotiations made with respect to the research; and
(B) received from another party involved in the research.
(7) Grade transcripts and license examination scores obtained as part of a licensure process.
(8) Those declared confidential by or under rules adopted by the supreme court of Indiana.
(9) Patient medical records and charts created by a provider, unless the patient gives written consent under IC 16-39 or as provided under IC 16-41-8.
(10) Application information declared confidential by the board of the Indiana economic development corporation under IC 5-28-16.
(11) A photograph, a video recording, or an audio recording of an autopsy, except as provided in IC 36-2-14-10.
(12) A Social Security number contained in the records of a public agency.
(b) Except as otherwise provided by subsection (a), the following public records shall be excepted from section 3 of this chapter at the discretion of a public agency:
(1) Investigatory records of law enforcement agencies. However, certain law enforcement records must be made available for inspection and copying as provided in section 5 of this chapter.
(2) The work product of an attorney representing, pursuant to state employment or an appointment by a public agency:
(A) a public agency;
(B) the state; or
(C) an individual.
(3) Test questions, scoring keys, and other examination data used in administering a licensing examination, examination for employment, or academic examination before the examination is given or if it is to be given again.
(4) Scores of tests if the person is identified by name and has not consented to the release of the person's scores.
(5) The following:
(A) Records relating to negotiations between the Indiana economic development corporation, the ports of Indiana, the Indiana state department of agriculture, the Indiana finance authority, an economic development commission, a local economic development organization (as defined in IC 5-28-11-2(3)), or a governing body of a political subdivision with industrial, research, or commercial prospects, if the records are created while negotiations are in progress.
(B) Notwithstanding clause (A), the terms of the final offer of
public financial resources communicated by the Indiana
economic development corporation, the ports of Indiana, the
Indiana finance authority, an economic development
commission, or a governing body of a political subdivision to
an industrial, a research, or a commercial prospect shall be
available for inspection and copying under section 3 of this
chapter after negotiations with that prospect have terminated.
(C) When disclosing a final offer under clause (B), the Indiana
economic development corporation shall certify that the
information being disclosed accurately and completely
represents the terms of the final offer.
(6) Records that are intra-agency or interagency advisory or
deliberative material, including material developed by a private
contractor under a contract with a public agency, that are
expressions of opinion or are of a speculative nature, and that are
communicated for the purpose of decision making.
(7) Diaries, journals, or other personal notes serving as the
functional equivalent of a diary or journal.
(8) Personnel files of public employees and files of applicants for
public employment, except for:
(A) the name, compensation, job title, business address,
business telephone number, job description, education and
training background, previous work experience, or dates of
first and last employment of present or former officers or
employees of the agency;
(B) information relating to the status of any formal charges
against the employee; and
(C) the factual basis for a disciplinary action in which final
action has been taken and that resulted in the employee being
suspended, demoted, or discharged.
However, all personnel file information shall be made available
to the affected employee or the employee's representative. This
subdivision does not apply to disclosure of personnel information
generally on all employees or for groups of employees without the
request being particularized by employee name.
(9) Minutes or records of hospital medical staff meetings.
(10) Administrative or technical information that would
jeopardize a record keeping or security system.
(11) Computer programs, computer codes, computer filing
systems, and other software that are owned by the public agency
or entrusted to it and portions of electronic maps entrusted to a
public agency by a utility.
(12) Records specifically prepared for discussion or developed during discussion in an executive session under IC 5-14-1.5-6.1. However, this subdivision does not apply to that information required to be available for inspection and copying under subdivision (8).
(13) The work product of the legislative services agency under personnel rules approved by the legislative council.
(14) The work product of individual members and the partisan staffs of the general assembly.
(15) The identity of a donor of a gift made to a public agency if:
(A) the donor requires nondisclosure of the donor's identity as a condition of making the gift; or
(B) after the gift is made, the donor or a member of the donor's family requests nondisclosure.
(16) Library or archival records:
(A) which can be used to identify any library patron; or
(B) deposited with or acquired by a library upon a condition that the records be disclosed only:
(i) to qualified researchers;
(ii) after the passing of a period of years that is specified in the documents under which the deposit or acquisition is made; or
(iii) after the death of persons specified at the time of the acquisition or deposit.
However, nothing in this subdivision shall limit or affect contracts entered into by the Indiana state library pursuant to IC 4-1-6-8.
(17) The identity of any person who contacts the bureau of motor vehicles concerning the ability of a driver to operate a motor vehicle safely and the medical records and evaluations made by the bureau of motor vehicles staff or members of the driver licensing medical advisory board regarding the ability of a driver to operate a motor vehicle safely. However, upon written request to the commissioner of the bureau of motor vehicles, the driver must be given copies of the driver's medical records and evaluations.
(18) School safety and security measures, plans, and systems, including emergency preparedness plans developed under 511 IAC 6.1-2-2.5.
(19) A record or a part of a record, the public disclosure of which would have a reasonable likelihood of threatening public safety by exposing a vulnerability to terrorist attack. A record described under this subdivision includes:
(A) a record assembled, prepared, or maintained to prevent, mitigate, or respond to an act of terrorism under IC 35-47-12-1 or an act of agricultural terrorism under IC 35-47-12-2;
(B) vulnerability assessments;
(C) risk planning documents;
(D) needs assessments;
(E) threat assessments;
(F) intelligence assessments;
(G) domestic preparedness strategies;
(H) the location of community drinking water wells and surface water intakes;
(I) the emergency contact information of emergency responders and volunteers;
(J) infrastructure records that disclose the configuration of critical systems such as communication, electrical, ventilation, water, and wastewater systems; and
(K) detailed drawings or specifications of structural elements, floor plans, and operating, utility, or security systems, whether in paper or electronic form, of any building or facility located on an airport (as defined in IC 8-21-1-1) that is owned, occupied, leased, or maintained by a public agency. A record described in this clause may not be released for public inspection by any public agency without the prior approval of the public agency that owns, occupies, leases, or maintains the airport. The public agency that owns, occupies, leases, or maintains the airport:
(i) is responsible for determining whether the public disclosure of a record or a part of a record has a reasonable likelihood of threatening public safety by exposing a vulnerability to terrorist attack; and
(ii) must identify a record described under item (i) and clearly mark the record as "confidential and not subject to public disclosure under IC 5-14-3-4(b)(19)(J) without approval of (insert name of submitting public agency)".
This subdivision does not apply to a record or portion of a record pertaining to a location or structure owned or protected by a public agency in the event that an act of terrorism under IC 35-47-12-1 or an act of agricultural terrorism under IC 35-47-12-2 has occurred at that location or structure, unless release of the record or portion of the record would have a reasonable likelihood of threatening public safety by exposing a vulnerability of other locations or structures to terrorist attack.
(20) The following personal information concerning a customer of a municipally owned utility (as defined in IC 8-1-2-1):
(A) Telephone number.
(B) Address.
(C) Social Security number.
(21) The following personal information about a complainant contained in records of a law enforcement agency:
(A) Telephone number.
(B) The complainant's address. However, if the complainant's address is the location of the suspected crime, infraction, accident, or complaint reported, the address shall be made available for public inspection and copying.
(22) Notwithstanding subdivision (8)(A), the name, compensation, job title, business address, business telephone number, job description, education and training background, previous work experience, or dates of first employment of a law enforcement officer who is operating in an undercover capacity.
(23) Records requested by an offender that:
(A) contain personal information relating to:
(i) a correctional officer (as defined in IC 5-10-10-1.5);
(ii) the victim of a crime; or
(iii) a family member of a correctional officer or the victim of a crime; or
(B) concern or could affect the security of a jail or correctional facility.
(c) Nothing contained in subsection (b) shall limit or affect the right of a person to inspect and copy a public record required or directed to be made by any statute or by any rule of a public agency.
(d) Notwithstanding any other law, a public record that is classified as confidential, other than a record concerning an adoption or patient medical records, shall be made available for inspection and copying seventy-five (75) years after the creation of that record.
(e) Only the content of a public record may form the basis for the adoption by any public agency of a rule or procedure creating an exception from disclosure under this section.
(f) Except as provided by law, a public agency may not adopt a rule or procedure that creates an exception from disclosure under this section based upon whether a public record is stored or accessed using paper, electronic media, magnetic media, optical media, or other information storage technology.
(g) Except as provided by law, a public agency may not adopt a rule or procedure nor impose any costs or liabilities that impede or
restrict the reproduction or dissemination of any public record.
(e) (h) Notwithstanding subsection (d) and section 7 of this chapter:
(1) public records subject to IC 5-15 may be destroyed only in
accordance with record retention schedules under IC 5-15; or
(2) public records not subject to IC 5-15 may be destroyed in the
ordinary course of business.
(1) provide relief or assistance after a natural or nonnatural disaster; and
(2) assist parents with stress issues.
(b) The test for the antibody or antigen to HIV may be performed if one (1) of the following conditions exists:
(1) If ordered by a physician who has obtained a health care consent under IC 16-36-1 or an implied consent under emergency circumstances and the test is medically necessary to diagnose or treat the patient's condition.
(2) Under a court order based on clear and convincing evidence of a serious and present health threat to others posed by an individual. A hearing held under this subsection shall be held in camera at the request of the individual.
(3) If the test is done on blood collected or tested anonymously as
part of an epidemiologic survey under IC 16-41-2-3 or
IC 16-41-17-10(a)(5).
(4) The test is ordered under section 4 of this chapter.
(5) The test is required or authorized under IC 11-10-3-2.5.
(c) A court may order a person to undergo testing for HIV under
IC 35-38-1-10.5(a) or IC 35-38-2-2.3(a)(16).
(1) "Bodily fluid" means blood, human waste, or any other bodily fluid.
(2) "Dangerous disease" means any of the following:
(A) Chancroid.
(B) Chlamydia.
(C) Gonorrhea.
(D) Hepatitis.
(E) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
(F) Lymphogranuloma venereum.
(G) Syphilis.
(H) Tuberculosis.
(3) "Offense involving the transmission of a bodily fluid" means any offense (including a delinquent act that would be a crime if committed by an adult) in which a bodily fluid is transmitted from the defendant to the victim in connection with the commission of the offense.
attorney files a petition under this subsection. The alleged victim, the
parent, guardian, or custodian of an alleged victim who is less than
eighteen (18) years of age, and the parent, guardian, or custodian of an
alleged victim who is an endangered adult (as defined in IC 12-10-3-2)
are entitled to receive notice of the hearing and are entitled to attend
the hearing. The defendant and the defendant's counsel are entitled to
receive notice of the hearing and are entitled to attend the hearing. If,
following the hearing, the court finds probable cause to believe that the
defendant has committed a potentially disease transmitting offense, the
court may order the defendant to submit to a screening test for one (1)
or more dangerous diseases. If the defendant is charged with
committing battery by body waste (IC 35-42-2-6), the court may limit
testing under this subsection to a test only for human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV). However, the court may order
additional testing for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) as may be
medically appropriate. The court shall take actions to ensure the
confidentiality of evidence introduced at the hearing.
(c) (d) This subsection applies only to a defendant who has been
charged with an offense involving the transmission of a bodily fluid. At
the request of an alleged victim of the offense, the parent, guardian, or
custodian of an alleged victim who is less than eighteen (18) years of
age, or the parent, guardian, or custodian of an alleged victim who is
an endangered adult (as defined in IC 12-10-3-2), the prosecuting
attorney shall petition a court to order a defendant charged with the
commission of an offense involving the transmission of a bodily fluid
to submit to a screening test to determine whether the defendant is
infected with a dangerous disease. In the petition, the prosecuting
attorney must set forth information demonstrating that:
(1) the defendant has committed an offense; and
(2) a bodily fluid was transmitted from the defendant to the victim
in connection with the commission of the offense.
The court shall set the matter for hearing not later than forty-eight (48)
hours after the prosecuting attorney files a petition under this
subsection. The alleged victim of the offense, the parent, guardian, or
custodian of an alleged victim who is less than eighteen (18) years of
age, and the parent, guardian, or custodian of an alleged victim who is
an endangered adult (as defined in IC 12-10-3-2) are entitled to receive
notice of the hearing and are entitled to attend the hearing. The
defendant and the defendant's counsel are entitled to receive notice of
the hearing and are entitled to attend the hearing. If, following the
hearing, the court finds probable cause to believe that the defendant has
committed an offense and that a bodily fluid was transmitted from the
defendant to the alleged victim in connection with the commission of
the offense, the court may order the defendant to submit to a screening
test for one (1) or more dangerous diseases. If the defendant is charged
with committing battery by body waste (IC 35-42-2-6), the court may
limit testing under this subsection to a test only for human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV). However, the court may order
additional testing for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) as may be
medically appropriate. The court shall take actions to ensure the
confidentiality of evidence introduced at the hearing.
(d) (e) The testimonial privileges applying to communication
between a husband and wife and between a health care provider and
the health care provider's patient are not sufficient grounds for not
testifying or providing other information at a hearing conducted in
accordance with this section.
(e) (f) A health care provider (as defined in IC 16-18-2-163) who
discloses information that must be disclosed to comply with this
section is immune from civil and criminal liability under Indiana
statutes that protect patient privacy and confidentiality.
(f) (g) The results of a screening test conducted under this section
shall be kept confidential if the defendant ordered to submit to the
screening test under this section has not been convicted of the
potentially disease transmitting offense or offense involving the
transmission of a bodily fluid with which the defendant is charged. The
results may not be made available to any person or public or private
agency other than the following:
(1) The defendant and the defendant's counsel.
(2) The prosecuting attorney.
(3) The department of correction or the penal facility, juvenile
detention facility, or secure private facility where the defendant
is housed.
(4) The alleged victim or the parent, guardian, or custodian of an
alleged victim who is less than eighteen (18) years of age, or the
parent, guardian, or custodian of an alleged victim who is an
endangered adult (as defined in IC 12-10-3-2), and the alleged
victim's counsel.
The results of a screening test conducted under this section may not be
admitted against a defendant in a criminal proceeding or against a child
in a juvenile delinquency proceeding.
(g) (h) As soon as practicable after a screening test ordered under
this section has been conducted, the alleged victim or the parent,
guardian, or custodian of an alleged victim who is less than eighteen
(18) years of age, or the parent, guardian, or custodian of an alleged
victim who is an endangered adult (as defined in IC 12-10-3-2), and the
victim's counsel shall be notified of the results of the test.
(h) (i) An alleged victim may disclose the results of a screening test
to which a defendant is ordered to submit under this section to an
individual or organization to protect the health and safety of or to seek
compensation for:
(1) the alleged victim;
(2) the alleged victim's sexual partner; or
(3) the alleged victim's family.
(i) (j) The court shall order a petition filed and any order entered
under this section sealed.
(j) (k) A person that knowingly or intentionally:
(1) receives notification or disclosure of the results of a screening
test under this section; and
(2) discloses the results of the screening test in violation of this
section;
commits a Class B misdemeanor.
(b) Not later than forty-eight (48) hours after an alleged victim described in subsection (a) requests that the defendant be tested for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the defendant must be tested for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
(c) As soon as practicable, the results of a test for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) conducted under subsection (b) shall be sent to:
(1) the alleged victim;
(2) the parent or guardian of the alleged victim, if the alleged victim is less than eighteen (18) years of age; and
(3) the defendant.
(d) If follow-up testing of the defendant for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is necessary, the results of follow-up testing of the defendant shall be sent to:
(1) the alleged victim;
(2) the parent or guardian of the alleged victim if the alleged victim is less than eighteen (18) years of age; and
(3) the defendant.
(1) engaging in violent or threatening acts against;
(2) engaging in harassment of;
(3) engaging in contact or communication with; or
(4) being in physical proximity to;
another person. The term includes temporary and final orders issued by civil and criminal courts.
(1) An individual granted the authority in a funeral planning declaration executed by the decedent under IC 29-2-19.
(2) An individual granted the authority in a health care power of attorney executed by the decedent under IC 30-5-5-16.
(3) The individual who was the spouse of the decedent at the time of the decedent's death.
(4) The decedent's surviving adult child. If more than one (1) adult child is surviving, any adult child who confirms in writing that the other adult children have been notified, unless the licensed funeral director or licensed funeral home receives a written objection from another adult child.
(5) The decedent's surviving parent. If the decedent is survived by both parents, either parent has the authority unless the licensed funeral director or licensed funeral home receives a written objection from the other parent.
(6) The individual in the next degree of kinship under IC 29-1-2-1 to inherit the estate of the decedent. If more than one (1) individual of the same degree survives, any person of that degree has the authority unless the licensed funeral director or licensed funeral home receives a written objection from one (1) or more persons of the same degree.
(7) In the case of an indigent or other individual whose final disposition is the responsibility of the state or township, the following:
(A) If none of the persons identified in subdivisions (1) through (6) is available:
(i) a public administrator, including a responsible township trustee or the trustee's designee; or
(ii) the coroner.
(B) A state appointed guardian.
(b) If:
(1) the death of the decedent appears to have been the result of:
(A) murder (IC 35-42-1-1);
(B) voluntary manslaughter (IC 35-42-1-3); or
(C) another criminal act, if the death does not result from the operation of a vehicle; and
(2) the coroner, in consultation with the law enforcement agency investigating the death of the decedent, determines that there is a reasonable suspicion that a person described in subsection (a) committed the offense;
the person referred to in subdivision (2) may not authorize or designate the manner, type, or selection of the final disposition and internment of human remains.
(c) The coroner, in consultation with the law enforcement agency investigating the death of the decedent, shall inform the cemetery owner or crematory authority of the determination under subsection (b)(2).
(d) If the decedent had filed a protection order against a person described in subsection (a) and the protection order is currently in effect, the person described in subsection (a) may not authorize or designate the manner, type, or selection of the final disposition and interment of human remains.
(e) A law enforcement agency shall determine if the protection order is in effect. If the law enforcement agency cannot determine the existence of a protection order that is in effect, the law enforcement agency shall consult the protective order registry established under IC 5-2-9-5.5.
(1) Require the defendant to:
(A) execute a bail bond with sufficient solvent sureties;
(B) deposit cash or securities in an amount equal to the bail;
(C) execute a bond secured by real estate in the county, where thirty-three hundredths (0.33) of the true tax value less encumbrances is at least equal to the amount of the bail;
(D) post a real estate bond; or
(E) perform any combination of the requirements described in clauses (A) through (D).
If the court requires the defendant to deposit cash or cash and another form of security as bail, the court may require the defendant and each person who makes the deposit on behalf of the defendant to execute an agreement that allows the court to retain all or a part of the cash to pay publicly paid costs of representation and fines, costs, fees, and restitution that the court may order the defendant to pay if the defendant is convicted. The defendant must also pay the fee required by subsection (d).
(2) Require the defendant to execute:
(A) a bail bond by depositing cash or securities with the clerk of the court in an amount not less than ten percent (10%) of the bail; and
(B) an agreement that allows the court to retain all or a part of the cash or securities to pay fines, costs, fees, and restitution that the court may order the defendant to pay if the defendant is convicted.
A portion of the deposit, not to exceed ten percent (10%) of the monetary value of the deposit or fifty dollars ($50), whichever is the lesser amount, may be retained as an administrative fee. The clerk shall also retain from the deposit under this subdivision fines, costs, fees, and restitution as ordered by the court, publicly paid costs of representation that shall be disposed of in accordance with subsection (b), and the fee required by subsection (d). In the event of the posting of a real estate bond, the bond shall be used only to insure the presence of the defendant at any stage of the legal proceedings, but shall not be foreclosed for the payment of fines, costs, fees, or restitution. The individual posting bail for the defendant or the defendant admitted to bail under this subdivision must be notified by the sheriff, court, or clerk that the defendant's deposit may be forfeited under section 7 of this chapter or retained under subsection (b).
(3) Impose reasonable restrictions on the activities, movements, associations, and residence of the defendant during the period of
release.
(4) Except as provided in section 3.6 of this chapter, require the
defendant to refrain from any direct or indirect contact with an
individual and, if the defendant has been charged with an offense
under IC 35-46-3, any animal belonging to the individual,
including if the defendant has not been released from lawful
detention.
(5) Place the defendant under the reasonable supervision of a
probation officer, pretrial services agency, or other appropriate
public official. If the court places the defendant under the
supervision of a probation officer or pretrial services agency, the
court shall determine whether the defendant must pay the pretrial
services fee under section 3.3 of this chapter.
(6) Release the defendant into the care of a qualified person or
organization responsible for supervising the defendant and
assisting the defendant in appearing in court. The supervisor shall
maintain reasonable contact with the defendant in order to assist
the defendant in making arrangements to appear in court and,
where appropriate, shall accompany the defendant to court. The
supervisor need not be financially responsible for the defendant.
(7) Release the defendant on personal recognizance unless:
(A) the state presents evidence relevant to a risk by the
defendant:
(i) of nonappearance; or
(ii) to the physical safety of the public; and
(B) the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the
risk exists.
(8) Require a defendant charged with an offense under IC 35-46-3
to refrain from owning, harboring, or training an animal.
(9) Impose any other reasonable restrictions designed to assure
the defendant's presence in court or the physical safety of another
person or the community.
(b) Within thirty (30) days after disposition of the charges against
the defendant, the court that admitted the defendant to bail shall order
the clerk to remit the amount of the deposit remaining under subsection
(a)(2) to the defendant. The portion of the deposit that is not remitted
to the defendant shall be deposited by the clerk in the supplemental
public defender services fund established under IC 33-40-3.
(c) For purposes of subsection (b), "disposition" occurs when the
indictment or information is dismissed or the defendant is acquitted or
convicted of the charges.
(d) Except as provided in subsection (e), the clerk of the court shall:
(1) collect a fee of five dollars ($5) from each bond or deposit required under subsection (a)(1); and
(2) retain a fee of five dollars ($5) from each deposit under subsection (a)(2).
The clerk of the court shall semiannually remit the fees collected under this subsection to the board of trustees of the public employees' retirement fund for deposit in the special death benefit fund. The fee required by subdivision (2) is in addition to the administrative fee retained under subsection (a)(2).
(e) With the approval of the clerk of the court, the county sheriff may collect the bail posted under this section. The county sheriff shall remit the bail to the clerk of the court by the following business day and remit monthly the five dollar ($5) special death benefit fee to the county auditor.
(f) When a court imposes a condition of bail described in subsection (a)(4):
(1) the clerk of the court shall comply with IC 5-2-9; and
(2) the prosecuting attorney shall file a confidential form prescribed or approved by the division of state court administration with the clerk.
(b) If a court releases a defendant described in subsection (a) to bail without holding a bail hearing in open court, the court shall include as a condition of bail the requirement that the defendant refrain from any direct or indirect contact with the victim:
(1) for ten (10) days after release; or
(2) until the initial hearing;
whichever occurs first.
(c) At the initial hearing, the court may reinstate or modify the condition that the defendant refrain from direct or indirect contact with the victim.
(b) A court may order a person who is required to wear a GPS
tracking device under subsection (a) to pay any costs associated
with the GPS tracking device.
(1) a protective order to prevent domestic or family violence issued under IC 34-26-5 (or, if the order involved a family or household member, under IC 34-26-2 or IC 34-4-5.1-5 before their repeal);
(2) an ex parte protective order issued under IC 34-26-5 (or, if the order involved a family or household member, an emergency order issued under IC 34-26-2 or IC 34-4-5.1 before their repeal);
(3) a workplace violence restraining order issued under IC 34-26-6;
(4) a no contact order in a dispositional decree issued under IC 31-34-20-1, IC 31-37-19-1, or IC 31-37-5-6 (or IC 31-6-4-15.4 or IC 31-6-4-15.9 before their repeal) or an order issued under IC 31-32-13 (or IC 31-6-7-14 before its repeal) that orders the person to refrain from direct or indirect contact with a child in need of services or a delinquent child;
(5) a no contact order issued as a condition of pretrial release, including release on bail or personal recognizance, or pretrial diversion, and including a no contact order issued under IC 35-33-8-3.6;
(6) a no contact order issued as a condition of probation;
(7) a protective order to prevent domestic or family violence issued under IC 31-15-5 (or IC 31-16-5 or IC 31-1-11.5-8.2 before their repeal);
(8) a protective order to prevent domestic or family violence issued under IC 31-14-16-1 in a paternity action;
(9) a no contact order issued under IC 31-34-25 in a child in need of services proceeding or under IC 31-37-25 in a juvenile delinquency proceeding;
(10) an order issued in another state that is substantially similar to an order described in subdivisions (1) through (9);
(11) an order that is substantially similar to an order described in subdivisions (1) through (9) and is issued by an Indian:
(A) tribe;
(B) band;
(C) pueblo;
(D) nation; or
(E) organized group or community, including an Alaska Native village or regional or village corporation as defined in or established under the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act (43 U.S.C. 1601 et seq.);
that is recognized as eligible for the special programs and services provided by the United States to Indians because of their special status as Indians;
(12) an order issued under IC 35-33-8-3.2; or
(13) an order issued under IC 35-38-1-30;
commits invasion of privacy, a Class A misdemeanor. However, the offense is a Class D felony if the person has a prior unrelated conviction for an offense under this section.
(1) Each time a controlled substance designated by the advisory committee under IC 35-48-2-5 through IC 35-48-2-10 is dispensed, the dispenser shall transmit to the INSPECT program the following information:
(A) The controlled substance recipient's name.
(B) The controlled substance recipient's or the recipient representative's identification number or the identification number or phrase designated by the INSPECT program.
(C) The controlled substance recipient's date of birth.
(D) The national drug code number of the controlled substance dispensed.
(E) The date the controlled substance is dispensed.
(F) The quantity of the controlled substance dispensed.
(G) The number of days of supply dispensed.
(H) The dispenser's United States Drug Enforcement Agency registration number.
(I) The prescriber's United States Drug Enforcement Agency registration number.
(J) An indication as to whether the prescription was transmitted to the pharmacist orally or in writing.
(K) Other data required by the advisory committee.
(2) The information required to be transmitted under this section must be transmitted not more than seven (7) days after the date on
which a controlled substance is dispensed.
(3) A dispenser shall transmit the information required under this
section by:
(A) uploading to the INSPECT web site;
(B) a computer diskette; or
(C) a CD-ROM disk;
that meets specifications prescribed by the advisory committee.
(4) The advisory committee may require that prescriptions for
controlled substances be written on a one (1) part form that
cannot be duplicated. However, the advisory committee may not
apply such a requirement to prescriptions filled at a pharmacy
with a Type II permit (as described in IC 25-26-13-17) and
operated by a hospital licensed under IC 16-21, or prescriptions
ordered for and dispensed to bona fide enrolled patients in
facilities licensed under IC 16-28. The committee may not require
multiple copy prescription forms for any prescriptions written.
The advisory committee may not require different prescription
forms for any individual drug or group of drugs. Prescription
forms required under this subdivision must be jointly approved by
the committee and by the Indiana board of pharmacy established
by IC 25-26-13-3.
(5) The costs of the program.
(b) This subsection applies only to a retail pharmacy. A
pharmacist, pharmacy technician, or person authorized by a
pharmacist to dispense a controlled substance may not dispense a
controlled substance to a person who is not personally known to
the pharmacist, pharmacy technician, or person authorized by a
pharmacist to dispense a controlled substance unless the person
taking possession of the controlled substance provides documented
proof of the person's identification to the pharmacist, pharmacy
technician, or person authorized by a pharmacist to dispense a
controlled substance.
Chapter 9. Additional Sentence Requirements for Domestic Battery Convictions
Sec. 1. (a) At the time of sentencing for a person convicted of domestic battery under IC 35-42-2-1.3 or a crime that involved domestic abuse, neglect, or violence, the court may require the person to complete a batterer's intervention program approved by the court.
(b) The person convicted of domestic battery or another crime described in subsection (a) shall pay all expenses of the batterer's intervention program.
(c) The batterer's intervention program must be a certified intervention program.
(b) This SECTION expires December 1, 2010.
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